LDC Practice Papers — Set 3

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⚠ Disclaimer: This is a practice paper with simulated questions based on the exam pattern. Not affiliated with any official examination body.

General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude (Q. 1–30)

Q1. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Find the next number: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?

A. 162

B. 243

C. 324

D. 729

Correct Answer: B
Each term multiplied by 3: 3×3=9, 9×3=27, 27×3=81, 81×3=243.

Q2. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : A leap year occurs every 4 years.
Statement (b) : A century year is a leap year if divisible by 400.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Leap year every 4 years (except century years not divisible by 400). Both correct.

Q3. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

A woman walks 4 km South, turns left and walks 3 km, then turns left again and walks 4 km. How far is she from the starting point?

A. 3 km

B. 4 km

C. 5 km

D. 7 km

Correct Answer: A
Walk 4 km South, turn left (East) 3 km, turn left (North) 4 km. Ends 3 km East of start.

Q4. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Match the following shapes with their number of sides:

Column 1      Column 2
i. Triangle     a. 6
ii. Square      b. 4
iii. Pentagon c. 3
iv. Hexagon    d. 5

A. i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

B. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d

C. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

D. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

Correct Answer: A
Triangle=3, Square=4, Pentagon=5, Hexagon=6.

Q5. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

In a certain code, HOUSE is written as IPVTF. How is FLAT written in that code?

A. GMBU

B. GMBV

C. FMBU

D. GLBU

Correct Answer: A
Each letter shifted by +1: HOUSE→IPVTF, FLAT→GMBU.

Q6. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Find the missing number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?

A. 84

B. 112

C. 96

D. 128

Correct Answer: B
Each term doubled: 7×2=14, 14×2=28, 28×2=56, 56×2=112.

Q7. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

P is the mother of Q. Q is the brother of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?

A. Grandmother

B. Mother

C. Aunt

D. Sister

Correct Answer: A
P is mother of Q. R is sibling of Q. R is father of S. So P is grandmother of S.

Q8. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : An angle greater than 90° is called an obtuse angle.
Statement (b) : A right angle measures exactly 90°.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Obtuse angle >90° and <180°. Right angle = 90°. Both correct.

Q9. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Match the following numbers with their Roman numeral representation:

Column 1     Column 2
i. 50        a. C
ii. 100       b. L
iii. 500      c. M
iv. 1000     d. D

A. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

B. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

C. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

D. i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

Correct Answer: A
50=L, 100=C, 500=D, 1000=M.

Q10. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

How many rectangles are there in a 2×3 grid?

A. 12

B. 18

C. 24

D. 6

Correct Answer: B
Total rectangles = (3×4÷2)×(2×3÷2) = 6×3 = 18.

Q11. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

A train 200 m long crosses a platform 300 m in 25 seconds. Find speed in km/h.

A. 60 km/h

B. 72 km/h

C. 80 km/h

D. 54 km/h

Correct Answer: B
Total distance = 200+300=500m. Speed=500/25=20m/s=20×18/5=72 km/h.

Q12. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

If y + 1/y = 4, then y² + 1/y² = ?

A. 14

B. 16

C. 12

D. 18

Correct Answer: A
y+1/y=4. (y+1/y)²=16. y²+2+1/y²=16. Hence y²+1/y²=14.

Q13. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : Area of a circle = πr².
Statement (b) : Circumference of a circle = 2πr.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Area = πr², Circumference = 2πr. Both correct.

Q14. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

The average of 8 numbers is 24. If one number 32 is removed, the new average is:

A. 22

B. 22.86

C. 23.5

D. 21.5

Correct Answer: B
Sum = 8×24=192. New sum=192-32=160. New avg=160/7≈22.86.

Q15. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

A boat travels 30 km upstream in 5 hours and 42 km downstream in 3 hours. Speed of the stream is:

A. 2 km/h

B. 4 km/h

C. 3 km/h

D. 5 km/h

Correct Answer: B
Upstream=30/5=6 km/h. Downstream=42/3=14 km/h. Stream=(14-6)/2=4 km/h.

Q16. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

If 12 women can do a piece of work in 15 days, how many women are needed to do the same work in 10 days?

A. 18

B. 20

C. 15

D. 24

Correct Answer: A
Work=12×15=180 woman-days. Women=180/10=18.

Q17. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

The loss% when an article costing ₹600 is sold for ₹480:

A. 25%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 10%

Correct Answer: C
Loss=600-480=120. Loss%=120/600×100=20%.

Q18. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

If p : q = 3 : 5 and q : r = 2 : 3, then p : q : r = ?

A. 3 : 5 : 3

B. 6 : 10 : 15

C. 6 : 10 : 9

D. 3 : 10 : 15

Correct Answer: B
p:q=3:5=6:10, q:r=2:3=10:15. So p:q:r=6:10:15.

Q19. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

The LCM of two numbers is 96 and their HCF is 12. If one number is 48, the other is:

A. 36

B. 24

C. 32

D. 48

Correct Answer: B
Product=LCM×HCF=96×12=1152. Other=1152/48=24.

Q20. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : 1 hectare = 10,000 m².
Statement (b) : 1 acre = 4,840 square yards.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
1 hectare = 10,000 m². 1 acre = 4,840 sq yd. Both correct.

Q21. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

In a school of 200 students, 45% are girls. The number of boys is:

A. 90

B. 110

C. 100

D. 120

Correct Answer: B
Girls=45% of 200=90. Boys=200-90=110.

Q22. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

A sphere has radius 3 cm. Its volume is:

A. 108π cm³

B. 27π cm³

C. 36π cm³

D. 24π cm³

Correct Answer: C
Volume = 4/3πr³ = 4/3×π×27 = 36π cm³.

Q23. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

If cos θ = 4/5, then sin θ = ?

A. 4/5

B. 3/5

C. 5/3

D. 5/4

Correct Answer: B
cosθ=4/5. opp=3 (3-4-5 triangle). sinθ=3/5.

Q24. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

A box contains 4 red, 3 yellow and 5 blue marbles. One marble is drawn at random. Probability it is not yellow:

A. 1/4

B. 3/4

C. 3/4

D. 1/2

Correct Answer: C
Total=12. Not yellow=9. P=9/12=3/4.

Q25. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

The difference between SI and CI on ₹8000 at 5% for 2 years is:

A. ₹20

B. ₹40

C. ₹10

D. ₹80

Correct Answer: A
SI=8000×5×2/100=800. CI=8000(1.05)²-8000=820. Diff=20.

Q26. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Which letter is 5th to the right of the 10th letter from the left?

A. M

B. N

C. O

D. L

Correct Answer: C
10th letter=J. 5th right of J=O.

Q27. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

Statements: No bat is ball. All balls are wickets. Conclusions: I. No wicket is bat. II. Some wickets are balls.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Both I and II follow

D. Neither follows

Correct Answer: B
No bat is ball, all balls are wickets ⇒ some wickets are balls (II correct), but no definite relation between bat and wicket.

Q28. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

If APPLE is coded as 1-16-16-12-5, then MANGO is coded as:

A. 13-1-14-7-15

B. 13-1-14-6-15

C. 13-1-13-7-15

D. 12-1-14-7-15

Correct Answer: B
Each letter = position: M=13, A=1, N=14, G=7, O=15. Option B correct.

Q29. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

How many triangles are formed by drawing all diagonals of a hexagon?

A. 80

B. 70

C. 110

D. 90

Correct Answer: C
A regular hexagon with all diagonals has 110 triangles.

Q30. [+1, -0.25] General Intelligence, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude

In a row of 50 people, Raj is 15th from the left. His rank from the right is:

A. 35

B. 36

C. 34

D. 37

Correct Answer: B
Rank from right = 50-15+1 = 36.

General Studies & Current Affairs (Q. 31–55)

Q31. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Who is the current President of India (as of 2025)?

A. Droupadi Murmu

B. Ram Nath Kovind

C. Pranab Mukherjee

D. Pratibha Patil

Correct Answer: A
Droupadi Murmu is the current President of India (since 2022).

Q32. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Statement (b) : The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
VP is Rajya Sabha Chairman. President can dissolve Lok Sabha (Art. 85). Both correct.

Q33. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):
a. It is India's national mission for financial inclusion.
b. It provides an overdraft facility of up to ₹10,000.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
PMJDY is financial inclusion mission with overdraft up to ₹10,000. Both correct.

Q34. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
a. The new school structure is 5+3+3+4.
b. Higher education gross enrolment ratio target is 50% by 2035.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
NEP 2020: 5+3+3+4 structure, 50% GER target by 2035. Both correct.

Q35. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget 2025-26:

1. The fiscal deficit was estimated at 4.4% of GDP.
2. No income tax was levied on annual income up to ₹12 lakh under the new regime.
3. The FDI limit in the insurance sector was increased to 100%.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
All three are correct. Budget 2025-26: fiscal deficit 4.4% of GDP, no tax up to ₹12L income, FDI in insurance raised from 74% to 100%.

Q36. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding India's coal sector:
a. India is the second-largest coal producer in the world.
b. Coal India Limited is the largest coal-producing company.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
India is 2nd largest coal producer after China. CIL is the largest coal producer company.

Q37. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI Monetary Policy (June 2026):
a. The repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%.
b. The MPC maintained a 'neutral' stance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
In its June 2026 meeting, the MPC kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% and retained a neutral stance. GDP growth projected at 6.6% for FY26-27.

Q38. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the Padma Awards 2026:

1. Rohit Sharma and Harmanpreet Kaur received the Padma Shri.
2. Actor Dharmendra was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan.
3. A total of 131 Padma Awards were conferred for 2026.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
All three are correct. 131 Padma Awards: 5 Padma Vibhushan (incl. Dharmendra posthumously), 13 Padma Bhushan, 113 Padma Shri (incl. Rohit Sharma, Harmanpreet Kaur).

Q39. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding India's railway sector:
a. The Vande Bharat Express is India's fastest train.
b. The first Vande Bharat train was flagged off in 2019.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
Vande Bharat (Train 18) is India's fastest, launched in 2019. Both correct.

Q40. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the International Solar Alliance (ISA):
a. ISA was launched jointly by India and France at COP21.
b. Its headquarters are located in Gurugram, India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
ISA launched by India & France at COP21 (2015). HQ in Gurugram. Both correct.

Q41. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Match the following Indian national parks with their states:

Column 1       Column 2
i. Jim Corbett    a. Assam
ii. Kaziranga      b. Gujarat
iii. Gir           c. Rajasthan
iv. Ranthambore d. Uttarakhand

A. i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

B. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

C. i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c

D. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

Correct Answer: A
Jim Corbett→Uttarakhand, Kaziranga→Assam, Gir→Gujarat, Ranthambore→Rajasthan.

Q42. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding India's defence sector:
a. The DRDO developed the Tejas light combat aircraft.
b. INS Vikrant is India's first indigenously built aircraft carrier.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
Tejas developed by DRDO/ADA. INS Vikrant commissioned 2022. Both correct.

Q43. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the Nobel Prizes 2025:
a. The Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded for discovery of macroscopic quantum tunnelling.
b. The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
Both correct. Physics 2025: John Clarke, Michel Devoret, John Martinis — macroscopic quantum tunnelling. Peace 2025: Maria Corina Machado for democratic advocacy in Venezuela.

Q44. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Which Indian Air Force officer became the first Indian to visit the International Space Station and was conferred the Ashoka Chakra in 2026?

A. Air Cmde Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair

B. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla

C. Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma

D. Group Captain Ravish Malhotra

Correct Answer: B
Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla became the first Indian to visit the ISS and was awarded the Ashoka Chakra (highest peacetime gallantry award) on Republic Day 2026.

Q45. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the PM-KISAN scheme:
a. It provides ₹6,000 per year to eligible farmers in three instalments.
b. The scheme was launched in 2018.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
PM-KISAN launched 2018, provides ₹6,000/yr in 3 instalments of ₹2,000.

Q46. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

In the Defence Investiture Ceremony held on 8 June 2026, which Gaganyaan astronaut-designate received the Kirti Chakra?

A. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla

B. Air Cmde Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair

C. Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma

D. Major Arshdeep Singh

Correct Answer: B
Air Cmde Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair, a Gaganyaan astronaut-designate, was among the 7 Kirti Chakra recipients at the Defence Investiture Ceremony on 8 June 2026.

Q47. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

At the inaugural Indian Athletics Awards 2026, who was named the Best Male Athlete of the Year 2025?

A. PT Usha

B. Anju Bobby George

C. Neeraj Chopra

D. Parul Chaudhary

Correct Answer: C
Neeraj Chopra was named Best Male Athlete of the Year 2025 at the inaugural Indian Athletics Awards (June 2026). PT Usha and Anju Bobby George received Lifetime Achievement Awards.

Q48. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding India's performance at the FIH Women's Nations Cup 2026:
a. India defeated New Zealand 2-0 in the final to win the title.
b. The victory secured India's promotion to the FIH Women's Pro League.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
India beat New Zealand 2-0 in the final (Navneet Kaur, Sunelita Toppo scored) to win their second Nations Cup title and return to the Pro League (June 2026).

Q49. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission was launched to study which celestial body?

A. Moon

B. Sun

C. Mars

D. Venus

Correct Answer: B
Aditya-L1 is India's first solar mission to study the Sun (launched 2023).

Q50. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):
a. ISRO was founded in 1969.
b. The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was launched in 1975.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
ISRO founded 1969. Aryabhata launched 19 Apr 1975. Both correct.

Q51. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
a. It guarantees 100 days of employment per year to rural households.
b. The scheme was launched in 2005.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only statement a is correct

B. Only statement b is correct

C. Both statements a and b are correct

D. Neither statement a nor b is correct

Correct Answer: C
MGNREGA guarantees 100 days work. Enacted in 2005, launched in 2006.

Q52. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Which Indian state's community-managed natural farming programme won the prestigious Food Planet Prize 2026?

A. Kerala

B. Sikkim

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: C
The Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) programme was awarded the 2026 Food Planet Prize in Båstad, Sweden.

Q53. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

The first World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026 was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India. This championship aims to:

A. Promote traditional meditation practices

B. Transform yoga into a competitive sport with standardised scoring

C. Replace the International Day of Yoga

D. Restrict yoga to Indian participants only

Correct Answer: B
The World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026 is a premier global tournament designed to transform yoga into a structured competitive sport with standardised rules and scoring metrics.

Q54. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

In 2026, India's NPCI partnered with ACLEDA Bank to launch UPI acceptance in which country?

A. Nepal

B. Sri Lanka

C. Myanmar

D. Cambodia

Correct Answer: D
NPCI International partnered with ACLEDA Bank to launch UPI payments in Cambodia, expanding India's digital payment footprint (June 2026).

Q55. [+1, -0.25] General Studies & Current Affairs

Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal Budget 2026 presented by the new BJP government:

1. An allocation of ₹36,000 crore was made for the Annapurna Yojana for women's financial assistance.
2. DA for state government employees was raised by 20 percentage points to 38%.
3. 1 lakh government vacancies were announced to be filled.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
All three are correct. Bengal Budget 2026: ₹36,000 cr for Annapurna Yojana, 20% DA hike (total 38%), and 1 lakh vacancies to be filled.

Ethics and Morality (Q. 56–70)

Q56. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

The word 'morality' is derived from the Latin word:

A. Moralis

B. Mores

C. Moriturus

D. Mortalis

Correct Answer: A
'Morality' comes from Latin 'moralis' meaning customs or manners.

Q57. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : Ethics is a branch of philosophy.
Statement (b) : Meta-ethics studies the nature of moral judgments.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Ethics is a branch of philosophy. Meta-ethics analyzes moral language and judgments. Both correct.

Q58. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : Virtue ethics emphasizes character rather than actions.
Statement (b) : Aristotle is associated with virtue ethics.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Virtue ethics focuses on character. Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics is foundational. Both correct.

Q59. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

The concept of 'Accountability' in public administration means:

A. Taking personal credit

B. Answerability for actions and decisions

C. Avoiding responsibility

D. Delegating tasks

Correct Answer: B
Accountability means being answerable for one's actions and decisions.

Q60. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Match the following ethical concepts with their descriptions:

Column 1         Column 2
i. Integrity       a. Treating everyone fairly
ii. Impartiality    b. Honesty and moral uprightness
iii. Empathy       c. Not taking sides
iv. Justice        d. Understanding others' feelings

A. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

B. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

C. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

D. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

Correct Answer: A
Integrity→honesty, Impartiality→not taking sides, Empathy→understanding others, Justice→fairness.

Q61. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

The principle of 'Benevolence' in medical ethics means:

A. Do no harm

B. Act in the patient's best interest

C. Respect patient's choices

D. Fair distribution of resources

Correct Answer: B
Benevolence (beneficence) means acting in the best interest of the patient.

Q62. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : Utilitarianism was founded by Jeremy Bentham.
Statement (b) : John Stuart Mill modified utilitarianism.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Bentham founded utilitarianism. Mill refined it with qualitative distinctions. Both correct.

Q63. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

The concept of 'Karma' in Indian philosophy relates to:

A. Random fate

B. Cause and effect of actions

C. Divine punishment

D. Social duty

Correct Answer: B
Karma is the law of cause and effect — good/bad actions lead to corresponding results.

Q64. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

A journalist fabricating a news story violates which ethical principle?

A. Objectivity

B. Truthfulness

C. Confidentiality

D. Accountability

Correct Answer: B
Fabricating news violates truthfulness (veracity) — a core journalistic ethic.

Q65. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

The concept of 'Public Interest' in governance refers to:

A. Government's convenience

B. Welfare of the general public

C. Political party interests

D. Individual profit

Correct Answer: B
Public interest means actions that serve the welfare of the general public.

Q66. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Statement (a) : Moral relativism holds that morality differs across cultures.
Statement (b) : Moral absolutism holds that some actions are universally wrong.

A. Only the statement (a) is correct

B. Only the statement (b) is correct

C. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

D. Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Relativism: morality varies by culture. Absolutism: universal moral standards exist.

Q67. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ethical organization?

A. Transparency

B. Accountability

C. Nepotism

D. Fairness

Correct Answer: C
Nepotism (favoring relatives) is unethical. The rest are ethical values.

Q68. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

The 'Right to Information' Act (RTI) promotes which ethical value in governance?

A. Secrecy

B. Transparency

C. Authority

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: B
RTI Act 2005 promotes transparency and accountability in public administration.

Q69. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Match the following ethical theories with their proponents:

Column 1 Column 2
i. Deontology a. John Stuart Mill
ii. Utilitarianism b. Immanuel Kant
iii. Virtue Ethics c. John Rawls
iv. Justice as Fairness d. Aristotle

A. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

B. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

C. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

D. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

Correct Answer: A
Deontology→Kant, Utilitarianism→Mill, Virtue Ethics→Aristotle, Justice→Rawls.

Q70. [+1, -0.25] Ethics and Morality

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) refers to:

A. Maximizing shareholder profit

B. Business's ethical responsibility to society

C. Reducing employee wages

D. Avoiding taxes

Correct Answer: B
CSR means businesses have ethical obligations toward society and environment.

English Language, Grammar & Comprehension (Q. 71–90)

Q71. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the synonym of 'BRIEF':

A. Long

B. Concise

C. Detailed

D. Elaborate

Correct Answer: B
'Brief' means short and concise. 'Concise' is its synonym.

Q72. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the antonym of 'FRAIL':

A. Weak

B. Fragile

C. Strong

D. Delicate

Correct Answer: C
'Frail' (weak) antonym is 'strong'.

Q73. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Identify the correct spelling:

A. Occurence

B. Occurrence

C. Occurrence

D. Ocurrence

Correct Answer: C
Correct spelling: Occurrence (double c, double r).

Q74. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Fill in: She is ________ honest woman.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. no article

Correct Answer: B
'Honest' begins with vowel sound (silent h), so 'an' is used.

Q75. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the correct tense: They ________ football every evening.

A. plays

B. play

C. playing

D. played

Correct Answer: B
For habitual actions: They play (plural subject).

Q76. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Identify the figure of speech: 'The wind whispered through the trees.'

A. Simile

B. Metaphor

C. Personification

D. Hyperbole

Correct Answer: C
Giving human quality (whispered) to wind = personification.

Q77. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the correct passive: 'The girl is writing a letter.'

A. A letter is written by the girl

B. A letter is being written by the girl

C. A letter was being written by the girl

D. A letter has been written by the girl

Correct Answer: B
Present continuous active → is being + past participle passive.

Q78. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the correct preposition: She is interested ________ learning languages.

A. for

B. in

C. on

D. at

Correct Answer: B
Correct collocation: interested IN something.

Q79. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Find the incorrectly spelt word:

A. Tomorrow

B. Harass

C. Embarrass

D. Harassment

Correct Answer: C
'Embarrass' is correctly spelled (double r, double s). All are correct here.

Q80. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

The plural of 'tooth' is:

A. Tooth

B. Tooth's

C. Teeth

D. Teeths

Correct Answer: C
Plural of 'tooth' is 'teeth' (irregular plural).

Q81. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the meaning of the idiom: 'To burn the midnight oil'

A. To waste time

B. To study or work late into the night

C. To set something on fire

D. To be very angry

Correct Answer: B
Means to work or study late at night (by candlelight originally).

Q82. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Which sentence is grammatically correct?

A. Each of the boys have a book

B. Each of the boys has a book

C. Each of the boys are having a book

D. Each of the boys were having a book

Correct Answer: B
'Each' is singular, so 'has' is correct.

Q83. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the correct tag: 'He didn't come, ________?'

A. didn't he?

B. did he?

C. doesn't he?

D. does he?

Correct Answer: B
Negative statement + positive tag: 'did he?'

Q84. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

The superlative form of 'bad' is:

A. Baddest

B. Worse

C. Worst

D. Most bad

Correct Answer: C
Bad → worse (comparative) → worst (superlative).

Q85. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Match the following words with their meanings:

Column 1         Column 2
i. Audible       a. Can be seen
ii. Visible       b. Can be heard
iii. Legible       c. Can be touched
iv. Tangible      d. Can be read

A. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

B. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

C. i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

D. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d

Correct Answer: A
Audible→heard, Visible→seen, Legible→read, Tangible→touched.

Q86. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Identify the adjective in: 'The tall man walked slowly.'

A. Tall

B. Man

C. Walked

D. Slowly

Correct Answer: A
'Tall' modifies the noun 'man', so it is an adjective.

Q87. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the correct conjunction: 'She ran fast ________ she missed the bus.'

A. because

B. so

C. but

D. and

Correct Answer: C
'But' shows contrast: fast running vs missing the bus.

Q88. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

'I have been studying ________ three hours.' Choose the correct preposition.

A. since

B. for

C. from

D. by

Correct Answer: B
'For' is used with a duration of time (three hours).

Q89. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

Choose the word that best completes: 'His speech was full of ________.'

A. wisdom

B. wise

C. wisely

D. wiser

Correct Answer: A
'Full of wisdom' — noun needed after preposition 'of'.

Q90. [+1, -0.25] English Language, Grammar & Comprehension

'Neither the teacher nor the students ________ present.' Fill in:

A. were

B. was

C. is

D. has been

Correct Answer: A
Verb agrees with nearer subject 'students' (plural), so 'were'.

Computer Knowledge (Q. 91–100)

Q91. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

The full form of RAM is:

A. Random Access Memory

B. Read Access Memory

C. Rapid Access Memory

D. Run Access Memory

Correct Answer: A
RAM = Random Access Memory (volatile memory).

Q92. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

Which of the following is a web browser?

A. Windows

B. Google Chrome

C. MS Word

D. Excel

Correct Answer: B
Google Chrome is a web browser. Windows is OS, Word/Excel are apps.

Q93. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

Which of the following is a volatile memory?

A. Hard Disk

B. RAM

C. ROM

D. SSD

Correct Answer: B
RAM is volatile (loses data when power is off). The rest are non-volatile.

Q94. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

Which protocol is used for receiving email?

A. SMTP

B. POP3

C. HTTP

D. FTP

Correct Answer: B
POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and IMAP are used to receive emails.

Q95. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

The extension of a PowerPoint file is:

A. .docx

B. .xlsx

C. .pptx

D. .txt

Correct Answer: C
.pptx is the PowerPoint extension (2007+).

Q96. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

Which key is used to open the Task Manager in Windows?

A. Ctrl+Shift+Esc

B. Ctrl+Alt+Del then Task Manager

C. Alt+F4

D. Ctrl+Z

Correct Answer: A
Ctrl+Shift+Esc opens Task Manager directly in Windows.

Q97. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

The term 'URL' stands for:

A. Universal Resource Locator

B. Uniform Resource Locator

C. Universal Reference Locator

D. Uniform Reference Link

Correct Answer: B
URL = Uniform Resource Locator (web address).

Q98. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

Which of the following is NOT an operating system?

A. Linux

B. macOS

C. Photoshop

D. Windows

Correct Answer: C
Photoshop is an image-editing application, not an OS.

Q99. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

1 GB equals how many MB?

A. 100 MB

B. 512 MB

C. 1024 MB

D. 1000 MB

Correct Answer: C
1 GB = 1024 MB (binary system, 2¹°).

Q100. [+1, -0.25] Computer Knowledge

Which device is used to print documents?

A. Scanner

B. Printer

C. Monitor

D. Speaker

Correct Answer: B
Printer is an output device that prints documents on paper.

Paper II — Subject Knowledge

Sections: Science (Physics/Chemistry/Biology), Maths/Statistics, Commerce/Economics/Geography, Social Science, Indian History/World History/Polity/Constitution

Q1. [+1, -0.25] Physics

What is the SI unit of electric current?

A. Volt

B. Ampere

C. Ohm

D. Watt

Correct Answer: B
The ampere (A) is the SI unit of electric current. Volt is for potential difference, ohm for resistance, watt for power.

Q2. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Which law states that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection?

A. Snell's Law

B. Law of Reflection

C. Newton's First Law

D. Hooke's Law

Correct Answer: B
The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection when light reflects off a surface.

Q3. [+1, -0.25] Physics

A device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is called a:

A. Motor

B. Generator

C. Transformer

D. Rectifier

Correct Answer: B
A generator converts mechanical energy to electrical energy. A motor does the reverse.

Q4. [+1, -0.25] Physics

What is the speed of light in vacuum approximately?

A. 3 × 10⁶ m/s

B. 3 × 10⁸ m/s

C. 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s

D. 3 × 10⁴ m/s

Correct Answer: B
Light travels at approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s (300,000 km/s) in a vacuum.

Q5. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Consider the following statements regarding sound waves:

1. Sound waves are longitudinal in nature.
2. Sound cannot travel through a vacuum.
3. The speed of sound is maximum in gases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A
Sound waves are longitudinal (1). They require a medium, so cannot travel in vacuum (2). Speed is maximum in solids, not gases, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q6. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. Velocity

B. Force

C. Speed

D. Acceleration

Correct Answer: C
Speed is a scalar (only magnitude). Velocity, force, and acceleration are vectors (magnitude + direction).

Q7. [+1, -0.25] Physics

The process of converting a liquid into vapour at any temperature below its boiling point is called:

A. Boiling

B. Evaporation

C. Condensation

D. Sublimation

Correct Answer: B
Evaporation occurs at any temperature below boiling point. Boiling occurs at a specific boiling point.

Q8. [+1, -0.25] Physics

In a convex lens, an object placed between focus and optical centre produces an image that is:

A. Real and inverted

B. Virtual and erect

C. Real and erect

D. Virtual and inverted

Correct Answer: B
When an object is between the focus and optical centre of a convex lens, a virtual, erect, and magnified image is formed.

Q9. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Match the following physical quantities with their SI units:

List I	List II
A. Force	1. Joule
B. Work	2. Newton
C. Power	3. Hertz
D. Frequency	4. Watt

A. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3

B. A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

C. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

D. A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4

Correct Answer: A
Force → Newton, Work → Joule, Power → Watt, Frequency → Hertz.

Q10. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Which device is used to measure electric current in a circuit?

A. Voltmeter

B. Ammeter

C. Galvanometer

D. Potentiometer

Correct Answer: B
An ammeter measures current and is connected in series. A voltmeter measures potential difference.

Q11. [+1, -0.25] Physics

The colour of sky is blue due to:

A. Reflection

B. Refraction

C. Scattering of light

D. Diffraction

Correct Answer: C
The blue colour of the sky is due to Rayleigh scattering of sunlight by atmospheric particles.

Q12. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Newton's First Law of Motion is also known as the law of:

A. Acceleration

B. Inertia

C. Action-Reaction

D. Gravitation

Correct Answer: B
Newton's First Law (law of inertia) states that an object continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.

Q13. [+1, -0.25] Physics

Consider the following statements:

1. Nuclear fission is the splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei.
2. Nuclear fusion is the combining of light nuclei into a heavier nucleus.
3. Both fission and fusion release energy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
All three statements are correct. Fission splits heavy nuclei (used in nuclear reactors), fusion combines light nuclei (powers the Sun), and both release energy.

Q14. [+1, -0.25] Physics

What is the principle behind a hydraulic lift?

A. Archimedes' Principle

B. Pascal's Law

C. Bernoulli's Principle

D. Boyle's Law

Correct Answer: B
Pascal's Law: pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally in all directions. This is the principle of hydraulic lifts and brakes.

Q15. [+1, -0.25] Physics

A concave mirror is used in:

A. Rear-view mirrors of vehicles

B. Solar furnaces

C. Shaving mirrors

D. Both B and C

Correct Answer: D
Concave mirrors concentrate light (solar furnaces) and produce magnified images (shaving mirrors). Rear-view mirrors use convex mirrors.

Q16. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

The chemical symbol for Gold is:

A. Go

B. Gd

C. Au

D. Ag

Correct Answer: C
Gold's symbol is Au (from Latin 'aurum'). Ag is silver.

Q17. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

The pH of a neutral solution is:

A. 0

B. 14

C. 7

D. 1

Correct Answer: C
pH 7 is neutral (pure water). Below 7 is acidic, above 7 is basic/alkaline.

Q18. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

The gas released when baking soda reacts with vinegar is:

A. Oxygen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Hydrogen

D. Nitrogen

Correct Answer: B
Baking soda (NaHCO₃) reacts with acetic acid in vinegar to produce CO₂ gas.

Q19. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Which of the following is a noble gas?

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Helium

D. Chlorine

Correct Answer: C
Helium (He) is a noble gas (Group 18). Noble gases are chemically inert due to full outer electron shells.

Q20. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Consider the following statements:

1. Rusting of iron is an example of oxidation.
2. The chemical formula of rust is Fe₂O₃·xH₂O.
3. Galvanisation is a method to prevent rusting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

Correct Answer: A
All three statements are correct. Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide, and galvanization (zinc coating) prevents rusting.

Q21. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:

A. Neutrons

B. Protons

C. Electrons + Neutrons

D. Nucleons

Correct Answer: B
Atomic number = number of protons. Mass number = protons + neutrons.

Q22. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Which of these is a covalent compound?

A. NaCl

B. H₂O

C. CaO

D. MgCl₂

Correct Answer: B
H₂O (water) is a covalent compound — electrons are shared. NaCl, CaO, MgCl₂ are ionic (electron transfer).

Q23. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Match the following:

List I (Element)	List II (Symbol)
A. Sodium	1. Fe
B. Iron	2. Na
C. Potassium	3. Pb
D. Lead	4. K

A. A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4

B. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3

C. A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3

D. A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Correct Answer: B
Sodium → Na, Iron → Fe, Potassium → K, Lead → Pb.

Q24. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Which gas is produced when hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc metal?

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Chlorine

D. Carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: B
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂↑. Hydrogen gas is released when metals react with acids.

Q25. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

The process of electrolysis is used to:

A. Decompose a compound using electricity

B. Generate electricity from a chemical reaction

C. Mix two elements together

D. Separate a mixture by heating

Correct Answer: A
Electrolysis decomposes a compound using electric current (e.g., splitting water into H₂ and O₂).

Q26. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Which of the following is the lightest element?

A. Hydrogen

B. Helium

C. Lithium

D. Oxygen

Correct Answer: A
Hydrogen (atomic number 1) is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe.

Q27. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Teflon is a polymer of which monomer?

A. Ethene

B. Tetrafluoroethene

C. Vinyl chloride

D. Styrene

Correct Answer: B
Teflon (polytetrafluoroethylene, PTFE) is made from tetrafluoroethene (C₂F₄) monomers.

Q28. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

What is the main component of natural gas?

A. Ethane

B. Methane

C. Propane

D. Butane

Correct Answer: B
Natural gas consists mainly of methane (CH₄) along with smaller amounts of other hydrocarbons.

Q29. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

Which of these is NOT a greenhouse gas?

A. CO₂

B. CH₄

C. O₂

D. N₂O

Correct Answer: C
Oxygen (O₂) is not a greenhouse gas. CO₂, CH₄ (methane), and N₂O (nitrous oxide) are major greenhouse gases.

Q30. [+1, -0.25] Chemistry

The process of adding chlorine to drinking water is called:

A. Chlorination

B. Fluoridation

C. Sedimentation

D. Filtration

Correct Answer: A
Chlorination is the process of adding chlorine to water to kill harmful microorganisms.

Q31. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Which organ in the human body is responsible for pumping blood?

A. Lungs

B. Heart

C. Kidney

D. Liver

Correct Answer: B
The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the circulatory system.

Q32. [+1, -0.25] Biology

The basic structural and functional unit of life is the:

A. Cell

B. Tissue

C. Organ

D. Organ system

Correct Answer: A
The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of all living organisms.

Q33. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Which vitamin is produced by the human body when exposed to sunlight?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin B12

Correct Answer: B
The skin produces Vitamin D when exposed to UV-B rays from sunlight. It is essential for calcium absorption.

Q34. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Plants prepare their food through which process?

A. Respiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Transpiration

D. Digestion

Correct Answer: B
Photosynthesis uses sunlight, CO₂, and water to produce glucose and oxygen in the presence of chlorophyll.

Q35. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Which blood type is known as the universal donor?

A. A

B. B

C. O negative

D. AB

Correct Answer: C
O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with all blood types.

Q36. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Consider the following statements regarding the human digestive system:

1. The small intestine is the longest part of the digestive tract.
2. Bile is produced by the gallbladder.
3. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A
The small intestine is the longest section (1). Bile is produced by the liver (not gallbladder), so statement 2 is wrong. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes (3).

Q37. [+1, -0.25] Biology

The disease caused by deficiency of iron is:

A. Scurvy

B. Anaemia

C. Rickets

D. Beriberi

Correct Answer: B
Iron deficiency causes anaemia (low haemoglobin). Scurvy = Vitamin C deficiency, Rickets = Vitamin D, Beriberi = Vitamin B1.

Q38. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Which part of the nervous system controls voluntary actions?

A. Autonomic nervous system

B. Sympathetic nervous system

C. Central nervous system

D. Peripheral nervous system

Correct Answer: C
The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) controls voluntary actions. The autonomic system controls involuntary functions.

Q39. [+1, -0.25] Biology

The genetic material in most living organisms is:

A. RNA

B. DNA

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrate

Correct Answer: B
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the genetic material in most organisms. Some viruses use RNA.

Q40. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Which organism causes malaria?

A. Virus

B. Bacteria

C. Protozoan

D. Fungus

Correct Answer: C
Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium protozoan, transmitted through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes.

Q41. [+1, -0.25] Biology

The largest organ in the human body is the:

A. Liver

B. Skin

C. Lungs

D. Heart

Correct Answer: B
The skin is the largest organ (about 1.5–2 m² in adults). The liver is the largest internal organ.

Q42. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Animals that eat only plants are called:

A. Carnivores

B. Herbivores

C. Omnivores

D. Decomposers

Correct Answer: B
Herbivores eat only plants (e.g., cow, deer). Carnivores eat meat, omnivores eat both.

Q43. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Match the following vitamins with their deficiency diseases:

List I (Vitamin)	List II (Disease)
A. Vitamin A	1. Beriberi
B. Vitamin B1	2. Scurvy
C. Vitamin C	3. Night blindness
D. Vitamin D	4. Rickets

A. A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4

B. A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4

C. A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4

D. A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3

Correct Answer: A
Vitamin A → Night blindness, B1 → Beriberi, C → Scurvy, D → Rickets.

Q44. [+1, -0.25] Biology

Which of the following is a communicable disease?

A. Diabetes

B. Tuberculosis

C. Cancer

D. Asthma

Correct Answer: B
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that spreads through the air. Diabetes, cancer, and asthma are non-communicable.

Q45. [+1, -0.25] Biology

The enzyme present in saliva that breaks down starch is:

A. Amylase

B. Pepsin

C. Trypsin

D. Lipase

Correct Answer: A
Salivary amylase (ptyalin) breaks down starch into maltose. Pepsin works on proteins in the stomach.

Q46. [+1, -0.25] Mathematics

What is the value of (a+b)²?

A. a² + b²

B. a² + 2ab + b²

C. a² – 2ab + b²

D. a² + ab + b²

Correct Answer: B
(a+b)² = a² + 2ab + b² (standard algebraic identity).

Q47. [+1, -0.25] Mathematics

If a circle has a radius of 7 cm, what is its circumference? (π = 22/7)

A. 22 cm

B. 38 cm

C. 44 cm

D. 154 cm

Correct Answer: C
Circumference = 2πr = 2 × 22/7 × 7 = 44 cm.

Q48. [+1, -0.25] Mathematics

What is the mean of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: C
Mean = (2+4+6+8+10)/5 = 30/5 = 6.

Q49. [+1, -0.25] Mathematics

The probability of getting a head when tossing a fair coin is:

A. 0

B. 0.5

C. 1

D. 0.25

Correct Answer: B
A fair coin has 2 equally likely outcomes; probability of head = 1/2 = 0.5.

Q50. [+1, -0.25] Mathematics

The mode of the data set {1, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5} is:

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Correct Answer: C
Mode is the most frequently occurring value. 4 appears three times, more than any other number.

Q51. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

The process of recording financial transactions in a systematic manner is called:

A. Auditing

B. Bookkeeping

C. Budgeting

D. Taxation

Correct Answer: B
Bookkeeping is the systematic recording of financial transactions. Auditing is examining those records.

Q52. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

Which of the following is a direct tax?

A. GST

B. Income Tax

C. Customs Duty

D. Excise Duty

Correct Answer: B
Income Tax is a direct tax (paid directly to the government by the person on whom it is levied). GST, customs, and excise are indirect taxes.

Q53. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

Consider the following statements regarding a bill of exchange:

1. It is a written order to make a payment.
2. It must be accepted by the drawee.
3. It is used only in international trade.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
A bill of exchange is a written order (1), requires drawee's acceptance (2), but is used in both domestic and international trade — statement 3 is wrong.

Q54. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

What does 'GDP' stand for?

A. Gross Domestic Product

B. Gross Development Product

C. General Domestic Product

D. Gross Domestic Profit

Correct Answer: A
GDP = Gross Domestic Product, the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders.

Q55. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

Which bank is known as the 'Lender of Last Resort'?

A. SBI

B. World Bank

C. RBI

D. IMF

Correct Answer: C
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as the lender of last resort for commercial banks facing liquidity issues.

Q56. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

The term 'inflation' refers to:

A. Decrease in price of goods

B. Sustained increase in general price level

C. Increase in employment

D. Decrease in money supply

Correct Answer: B
Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services over time, reducing purchasing power.

Q57. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

What is the full form of GST?

A. General Sales Tax

B. Goods and Services Tax

C. Government Sales Tax

D. General Services Tax

Correct Answer: B
GST = Goods and Services Tax, a comprehensive indirect tax on the supply of goods and services.

Q58. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

Match the following:

List I (Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Assets	1. Amounts owed by the business
B. Liabilities	2. Resources owned by the business
C. Capital	3. Excess of revenue over expenses
D. Profit	4. Owner's investment in the business

A. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3

B. A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3

C. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

D. A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

Correct Answer: A
Assets are resources owned, liabilities are amounts owed, capital is owner's investment, profit is excess revenue over expenses.

Q59. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

The Stock Exchange where most Indian companies are listed is:

A. NSE only

B. BSE only

C. Both NSE and BSE

D. SEBI

Correct Answer: C
Most listed Indian companies are traded on both the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).

Q60. [+1, -0.25] Commerce

Which of the following is an example of working capital?

A. Machinery

B. Building

C. Cash in hand

D. Land

Correct Answer: C
Working capital includes short-term assets like cash, inventory, and receivables. Machinery, building, and land are fixed capital.

Q61. [+1, -0.25] Geography

Which is the longest river in the world?

A. Amazon

B. Nile

C. Mississippi

D. Yangtze

Correct Answer: B
The Nile River (about 6,650 km) is the longest. The Amazon is the largest by volume.

Q62. [+1, -0.25] Geography

Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

A. Troposphere

B. Stratosphere

C. Mesosphere

D. Thermosphere

Correct Answer: B
The ozone layer is in the stratosphere (about 15–35 km above Earth's surface), absorbing harmful UV radiation.

Q63. [+1, -0.25] Geography

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian monsoon:

1. The southwest monsoon brings rainfall to most of India.
2. The northeast monsoon affects the eastern coast (Tamil Nadu).
3. Mawsynram receives the highest rainfall in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
All three statements are correct. Southwest monsoon brings most of India's rain. Northeast monsoon brings rain to Tamil Nadu coast. Mawsynram (Meghalaya) receives the highest rainfall in India.

Q64. [+1, -0.25] Geography

The imaginary line that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres is the:

A. Prime Meridian

B. Equator

C. Tropic of Cancer

D. Tropic of Capricorn

Correct Answer: B
The Equator (0° latitude) divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

Q65. [+1, -0.25] Geography

Which is the largest continent by area?

A. Africa

B. Asia

C. North America

D. Europe

Correct Answer: B
Asia is the largest continent (about 44.58 million km²). Africa is second.

Q66. [+1, -0.25] Geography

The 'Ring of Fire' is associated with:

A. Tropical cyclones

B. Volcanic activity and earthquakes

C. Coral reefs

D. Desert regions

Correct Answer: B
The Ring of Fire is a region around the Pacific Ocean with frequent volcanic eruptions and earthquakes due to tectonic plate boundaries.

Q67. [+1, -0.25] Geography

Which Indian state has the longest coastline?

A. Kerala

B. Maharashtra

C. Gujarat

D. Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: C
Gujarat has the longest coastline in India (about 1,600 km).

Q68. [+1, -0.25] Geography

The Amazon River flows through which country?

A. Brazil

B. Peru

C. Colombia

D. Argentina

Correct Answer: A
The Amazon River flows primarily through Brazil, though its source is in Peru.

Q69. [+1, -0.25] Geography

The Thar Desert is located in which Indian state?

A. Punjab

B. Rajasthan

C. Gujarat

D. Haryana

Correct Answer: B
The Thar Desert (Great Indian Desert) is primarily in Rajasthan, extending into Gujarat and Haryana.

Q70. [+1, -0.25] Geography

Match the following:

List I (Mountain)	List II (Continent)
A. Mount Everest	1. Africa
B. Kilimanjaro	2. South America
C. Mount Aconcagua	3. Europe
D. Mount Elbrus	4. Asia

A. A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2

B. A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3

C. A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3

D. A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1

Correct Answer: B
Everest → Asia, Kilimanjaro → Africa, Aconcagua → South America, Elbrus → Europe.

Q71. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

The fundamental rights of Indian citizens are enshrined in which part of the Constitution?

A. Part I

B. Part II

C. Part III

D. Part IV

Correct Answer: C
Fundamental Rights are in Part III (Articles 12–35) of the Indian Constitution.

Q72. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

Who is known as the 'Father of the Indian Constitution'?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Sardar Patel

Correct Answer: B
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and is regarded as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.

Q73. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations:

1. The UN was established in 1945.
2. The Security Council has 5 permanent members.
3. The headquarters of the UN is in Geneva.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
UN was founded in 1945 (1). SC has 5 permanent members (US, UK, France, Russia, China — 2). UN HQ is in New York, not Geneva, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q74. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

The concept of 'Welfare State' means:

A. State with strong military

B. State that ensures social and economic well-being of its citizens

C. State with high GDP

D. State controlled by a single political party

Correct Answer: B
A welfare state takes responsibility for the social and economic well-being of its citizens through public services and social security.

Q75. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

The Panchayati Raj system in India was constitutionalized through which amendment?

A. 42nd Amendment

B. 73rd Amendment

C. 74th Amendment

D. 86th Amendment

Correct Answer: B
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. The 74th deals with municipalities.

Q76. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

A. Article 14

B. Article 15

C. Article 17

D. Article 19

Correct Answer: C
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form is punishable by law.

Q77. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

The Supreme Court of India is located in:

A. Mumbai

B. Kolkata

C. New Delhi

D. Chennai

Correct Answer: C
The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi. It is the highest judicial forum in the country.

Q78. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

The concept of 'Directive Principles of State Policy' is borrowed from which country's Constitution?

A. USA

B. UK

C. France

D. Ireland

Correct Answer: D
The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) were inspired by the Irish Constitution.

Q79. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?

A. Federal system

B. Parliamentary democracy

C. Presidential system

D. Fundamental Rights

Correct Answer: C
India has a parliamentary (Westminster) system, not a presidential system like the USA.

Q80. [+1, -0.25] Social Science

The term of office for the President of India is:

A. 4 years

B. 5 years

C. 6 years

D. 7 years

Correct Answer: B
The President of India holds office for a term of 5 years (Article 56 of the Constitution).

Q81. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

The Indus Valley Civilisation flourished during which period?

A. 5000–3000 BCE

B. 2600–1900 BCE

C. 1500–500 BCE

D. 1000 BCE–0 CE

Correct Answer: B
The Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation reached its peak during 2600–1900 BCE, with cities like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro.

Q82. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

Who was the first Emperor of the Maurya dynasty?

A. Chandragupta Maurya

B. Ashoka

C. Bindusara

D. Samudragupta

Correct Answer: A
Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire in 322 BCE. Ashoka was his grandson.

Q83. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

The Battle of Plassey was fought in the year:

A. 1750

B. 1757

C. 1764

D. 1773

Correct Answer: B
The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between the British East India Company and Siraj-ud-Daulah, marking the beginning of British rule in India.

Q84. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi:

1. He launched the Dandi March in 1930.
2. He participated in the Round Table Conference in London.
3. He was assassinated in 1947.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha) was in 1930 (1). He attended the 2nd Round Table Conference in 1931 (2). He was assassinated in 1948, not 1947 — so statement 3 is wrong.

Q85. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

The Qutub Minar was built by:

A. Akbar

B. Alauddin Khalji

C. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

D. Shah Jahan

Correct Answer: C
Qutb-ud-din Aibak (first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate) began construction of the Qutub Minar in 1193. It was completed by Iltutmish.

Q86. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in which city?

A. Delhi

B. Lahore

C. Amritsar

D. Kolkata

Correct Answer: C
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in Amritsar, Punjab on April 13, 1919, under General Dyer's orders.

Q87. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

Who founded the Indian National Congress in 1885?

A. Dadabhai Naoroji

B. A. O. Hume

C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Correct Answer: B
Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant, founded the Indian National Congress in 1885.

Q88. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

The Chola dynasty is associated with which region of India?

A. Northern India

B. Eastern India

C. South India (Tamil region)

D. Western India

Correct Answer: C
The Chola dynasty ruled primarily in South India (Tamil Nadu), with its capital at Thanjavur. They were known for their naval power and temple architecture.

Q89. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

The Government of India Act 1935 provided for:

A. Complete independence

B. Provincial autonomy

C. Dominion status

D. Abolition of princely states

Correct Answer: B
The Government of India Act 1935 introduced provincial autonomy by establishing elected provincial governments.

Q90. [+1, -0.25] Indian History

Match the following:

List I (Event)	List II (Year)
A. First War of Independence	1. 1919
B. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre	2. 1857
C. Partition of Bengal	3. 1942
D. Quit India Movement	4. 1905

A. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3

B. A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3

C. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

D. A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

Correct Answer: A
1857 → First War of Independence, 1919 → Jallianwala Bagh, 1905 → Partition of Bengal, 1942 → Quit India Movement.

Q91. [+1, -0.25] World History

World War I began in which year?

A. 1914

B. 1915

C. 1917

D. 1918

Correct Answer: A
World War I began in 1914 after the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand and lasted until 1918.

Q92. [+1, -0.25] World History

The French Revolution began in the year:

A. 1776

B. 1783

C. 1789

D. 1799

Correct Answer: C
The French Revolution began in 1789 with the storming of the Bastille on July 14.

Q93. [+1, -0.25] World History

Who was the first President of the United States of America?

A. Thomas Jefferson

B. George Washington

C. Abraham Lincoln

D. John Adams

Correct Answer: B
George Washington served as the first President of the USA (1789–1797). He was also the Commander-in-Chief during the American Revolution.

Q94. [+1, -0.25] World History

Consider the following statements regarding the Cold War:

1. It was a period of geopolitical tension between the USA and the USSR.
2. It involved direct military conflict between the two superpowers.
3. The Berlin Wall was a symbol of the Cold War.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
The Cold War (1947–1991) was tension between the US and USSR (1). It did NOT involve direct military conflict between the two — it was proxy wars, so statement 2 is wrong. The Berlin Wall (1961) was a key symbol (3).

Q95. [+1, -0.25] World History

The Russian Revolution of 1917 resulted in the establishment of:

A. Democracy

B. Communist/Soviet rule

C. Monarchy

D. Fascism

Correct Answer: B
The Bolshevik Revolution (October 1917) led to the establishment of the world's first communist state — the Soviet Union.

Q96. [+1, -0.25] World History

The League of Nations was formed after:

A. World War II

B. World War I

C. The Cold War

D. The French Revolution

Correct Answer: B
The League of Nations was established in 1920 after World War I as an international organisation to maintain peace.

Q97. [+1, -0.25] World History

The policy of 'Apartheid' was practised in which country?

A. USA

B. South Africa

C. Australia

D. Brazil

Correct Answer: B
Apartheid was a system of racial segregation enforced in South Africa from 1948 to 1994. Nelson Mandela fought against it.

Q98. [+1, -0.25] World History

Who was the leader of Nazi Germany during World War II?

A. Benito Mussolini

B. Adolf Hitler

C. Joseph Stalin

D. Winston Churchill

Correct Answer: B
Adolf Hitler was the Führer of Nazi Germany (1933–1945) and initiated World War II in Europe.

Q99. [+1, -0.25] World History

The fall of the Berlin Wall occurred in:

A. 1987

B. 1989

C. 1990

D. 1991

Correct Answer: B
The Berlin Wall fell on November 9, 1989, symbolising the end of the Cold War and leading to German reunification in 1990.

Q100. [+1, -0.25] World History

Match the following:

List I (Person)	List II (Known for)
A. Christopher Columbus	1. Theory of Evolution
B. Charles Darwin	2. Discovery of America
C. Albert Einstein	3. March on Rome
D. Benito Mussolini	4. Theory of Relativity

A. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3

B. A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3

C. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

D. A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1

Correct Answer: A
Columbus → Discovery of America (1492), Darwin → Theory of Evolution, Einstein → Theory of Relativity, Mussolini → March on Rome (1922).